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c/t2dglp1·submitted 1 year ago by u/thandi_solberg

metformin: the version I wish someone had shown me in week 1

CGMbranch of 9 comments

Right, the A1c question again, but with numbers this time. I have 20 data points over 16 weeks. The pattern is consistent enough that I do not think it is chance, and boring enough that nobody is going to screenshot it, which is usually a good sign. The thing I would flag for anyone new: the effect I am describing…

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9 comments, started 1 year ago
u/marta_weiss92 points·1 year ago

Inter-lab variance on this kind of assay is routinely 1–2 points. Different column, different gradient, different integration.

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u/emil_okwuosa72 points·1 year ago

glycaemic control first, that is the original indication

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u/marta_weiss43 points·1 year ago

type 2 is the indication, weight loss is the side effect

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u/stubborn_batchlist_maybe33 points·1 year ago

No. This is the kind of confident post that gets copied into a screenshot and repeated for years. Where is the evidence.

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u/farid_jansen35 points·1 year ago

type 2 is the indication, weight loss is the side effect

Counter-anecdote: opposite result, same dose. Which mostly tells us the variance is huge.

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u/santiago_rasmussen19 points·1 year ago

Edit to your parent would help — the concentration you quoted assumes one scenario and you have written another above it.

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Type 2 diabetes as the original indication: A1c trajectories, CGM traces, hypoglycaemia risk when stacked with sulfonylureas or insulin, metformin combinations, and why the weight-loss conversation sometimes drowns out the glycaemic one.

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