T2D vs metformin — genuinely asking which matters more
hypoglycaemia. That is the whole post, but I will justify it.
Everything else people worry about in c/meta is downstream of it. Titration speed, reflux, the endless dose arguments — most of it resolves if you sort hypoglycaemia out first, and almost nobody does.
I say this having got it wrong for 6 months. My fasting insulin was the thing that eventually made me pay attention, which is a stupid way to learn a lesson that was in the sidebar the whole time.
best — the order this archive was captured in
Sceptical. If this were true we would see it reflected in the data and we do not.
post A1c with units and assay date
Came off after 79 weeks for financial reasons. Regained about a third over the following year. Back on now at a much lower dose.
post A1c with units and assay date
Water content matters more than people think. If a vial is carrying residual moisture, your "10mg" is not 10mg of peptide.
CGM traces tell a story, numbers alone do not
glycaemic control first, that is the original indication
the 30 A1c trend is the answer
Half-life is about 168 hours, so steady state lands around week 2–5. Practical consequence: what you feel in week 1 is not what that dose does.
type 2 is the indication, weight loss is the side effect
Strongly agree. A1c matters as much as weight.
insulin and sulfonylurea interactions are real hypo risk
This is the "correlation is mechanism" thing again. You changed three variables at once.
Removed a chain here. The rule is one line long and it is not negotiable.
Has anyone actually got this in writing, or is it forum lore at this point?
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A1c, CGM, stacking with metformin
Respectfully this is a sample of one presented as a finding.
- 1Sceptical. If this were true we would see it reflected in the data and we do…5 comments in this branch · started by u/swirl_dont_shake
- 2the 30 A1c trend is the answer5 comments in this branch · started by u/santiago_rasmussen