my A1c moved and I cannot work out whether glucagon is why
Genuinely asking, not being difficult.
Everyone in c/newbiequestions repeats that dose escalation is important. I believe it, but I have never seen anyone show why, and when I search I get 11 threads of people agreeing with each other.
Is there a paper? Is there a measurement? Or is this one of those things that is true because it has been repeated since 2023?
I am not trying to be the "source?" guy. I would just like a source.
best — the order this archive was captured in
Mechanistically the bit that matters is triple agonist. It explains most of the early profile and a decent chunk of the outcome.
TRIUMPH data is phase 2, not phase 3, smaller n and shorter
Removed a chain here. The rule is one line long and it is not negotiable.
Not convinced. The evidence does not support that reading.
Small correction: the trial was 21 weeks, not 37. Does not change your point but people will quote it.
the 1.7mg arm is different from 2.4mg, results do not transfer
the weight curves are unusually steep, which makes predicting individual response harder
Removed a chain here.
Counter-anecdote: opposite result, same dose. Which mostly tells us the variance is huge.
the dosing is steep, the constipation reports are real, and nobody knows the human safety yet
Small correction: the trial was 10 weeks, not 39. Does not change your point but people will quote it.
Edit to your parent would help — the concentration you quoted assumes one scenario and you have written another above it.
retatrutide is not approved anywhere for human use, posts must not read as instructions
Three years on this site and the questions have not changed at all. Which is depressing or reassuring depending on the day.
- 1Removed a chain here. The rule is one line long and it is not negotiable.6 comments in this branch · started by u/incretin_ivy
- 2the dosing is steep, the constipation reports are real, and nobody knows the…4 comments in this branch · started by u/baseline_drifter